In a previous post, I attempted to dispatch with the seven-ish scriptures that deal with some kind
of same-gender sexual expression. I argued that, at the very least, the
scriptural witness has very little to say about this topic, and probably
nothing to say about it when considered in the context of contemporary
same-gender families.
Nevertheless, some continue to claim that God’s plan for
marriage, according to scripture and binding for all space and time, is the
lifelong union of “one man and one woman.”
Of course, no one can actually
find this stated explicitly in
scripture. Throughout the Bible, all manner of sexual coupling (incest,
polygamy, sexual slavery, women as spoils of war, etc.) is passed over in
ethical silence. True, the Bible never formally
endorses many of these practices – but it also never explicitly prohibits them.
Yet, some still make this claim.
Some go a step further and claim that our response to
same-gender sexual expression is somehow essential to the integrity of our
confession as Christian people and churches. Recently, I was engaged in a
Facebook dialog in which many of my more conservative colleagues made the claim
that not only was I wrong about this issue of social ethics, but it also meant
that I had a fundamental
misunderstanding of the law – and therefore also the gospel; thus, my
confession of Christian faith is fundamentally flawed and heretical.
So here are the two (strangely) related claims:
1. The
Bible offers a consistent sexual ethic that is binding throughout all space and
time that defines marriage as between one man and one woman.
2. This
is not simply an ethical issue, but it is central to the proclamation of the
gospel, because to go against the Word of God is to endanger the souls of those
who hear this false confession proclaimed.
When pushed, these friends ground both of these claims not
in one of the seven-ish passages we tackled before; it is this one – provided in
full context:
3Some
Pharisees came to him, and to test him they asked, "Is it lawful for a man
to divorce his wife for any cause?" 4He
answered, "Have you not read that the one who made them at the beginning
'made them male and female,' 5and
said, 'For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to
his wife, and the two shall become one flesh'? 6So they are no longer
two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one
separate." 7They
said to him, "Why then did Moses command us to give a certificate of
dismissal and to divorce her?" 8He
said to them, "It was because you were so hard-hearted that Moses allowed
you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. 9And I say to you,
whoever divorces his wife, except for unchastity, and marries another commits
adultery."
10His disciples said to him, "If such is the case of a man with his wife, it is better not to marry." 11But he said to them, "Not everyone can accept this teaching, but only those to whom it is given. 12For there are eunuchs who have been so from birth, and there are eunuchs who have been made eunuchs by others, and there are eunuchs who have made themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. Let anyone accept this who can." (Matthew 19:3-12; see also Mark 10:1-12).
10His disciples said to him, "If such is the case of a man with his wife, it is better not to marry." 11But he said to them, "Not everyone can accept this teaching, but only those to whom it is given. 12For there are eunuchs who have been so from birth, and there are eunuchs who have been made eunuchs by others, and there are eunuchs who have made themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. Let anyone accept this who can." (Matthew 19:3-12; see also Mark 10:1-12).
A number of remarks can be made about this text, but let’s
focus where folks often focus, the highlighted text, where Jesus quotes Genesis
(twice) to make his case for the implausibility of divorce in the kingdom of
God (Note: Matthew adds, “except for unchastity,” a clear indication that
within the first generation of this teaching, it needed to be loosened up a bit
for – probably – very practical reasons).
Yes, Moses allowed for divorce because the people were so
hard-hearted, but God’s original intent was for the lifelong binding of men and
women in marriage. (Note: It is a little hazy to claim that “Moses” made these
commandments on his own, and not the God of Israel himself. The giving of the
law in the Torah is considered by most to be God’s doing, mediated through Moses.
But hey – I’ll give Jesus the benefit of the doubt here. And, of course, I could be wrong.)
One can make some explicit claims from a plain reading
of this text:
1. Jesus
believed that divorce is a violation of the created intent for human
relationships. As such, he “binds” the law – restraining what the existing
legal standards allow. This is the normal work of a rabbi – and the work that
Jesus explicitly gives to the church in Matthew 18:15-20 (among other places).
The church practices this “binding and loosing” work explicitly in Acts 15 with
the issue of circumcision (among other places). There is disagreement among the
churches regarding how and when this practice of binding or loosing the law should be
continued in the church today.
2. Jesus
assumes marriage to be a hetero-gendered relationship, which follows the
scriptural assumptions of his ancestors.
3. Jesus
understands that this teaching is hard – as hard for some as mutilating their
own genitals. (Ouch.)
However, these are the claims that some would like to
make, but cannot make without reading their own biases and assumptions
into the text (what we like to call eisegesis):
1. Jesus
believes that monogamy should be normative and binding for all marriages, for
all time.
2. Jesus
is hereby prohibiting any consideration of same-gender sexual expression.
Let’s take the latter first: Some respected (but not quite
mainstream) scholars believe that Jesus would actually be perfectly fine with
same-gender sexuality, based on an interesting reading of his encounter with
the centurion’s slave (or houseboy) in Matthew 8:5-13 (also Luke 7:1-10).
Interesting, but I would argue it’s equally eisegetical.
The reality is, Jesus never explicitly argues one way or the
other on same-gender sexuality (he never mentions it), but it is not
unreasonable to assume that he would find it to be outside the law. And Jesus
is very cautious about keeping the laws of Moses – in his own interpretation at
times – throughout his ministry. He was a kosher-keeping, law-abiding Jew, from
birth to death. It is unlikely that he even spent much time considering
same-gender sexuality (this is a fairly modern obsession, as the paucity of
scripture on the subject attests). But if he ever considered it, it’s likely
that he found it abhorrent. He probably wouldn’t kill people for it, however
(as Leviticus commands)… he tended to be against that kind of thing.
But here’s the deal: Just as it is (probably) reaching too far
to assume that Jesus would be fine with same-gender sexuality, it is still an assumption
that he would disagree with the practice.
More importantly, it is a blatant
assumption that Jesus assumed monogamy
as normative for sexual ethics. Hetero-gendered, perhaps – but not monogamous.
This is plainly obvious from the sources he draws on to make
his argument: the book of Genesis. To ground his argument for lifelong marriage,
he reaches back to the very beginning. The book he reaches into, however, makes
absolutely
no assumption about monogamy. Abraham was not monogamous. Jacob had two
wives and two concubines. Women were expected to belong to only one man
for their entire sexual lives, but no such expectation was ever applied
to men.
Again, it would be reaching too far to say that Jesus affirmed
polygamy. But it is also reaching too far to say that Jesus affirmed monogamy
as a binding sexual ethic. And if he
wanted to do so, this was his chance! He was “binding and loosing” the
laws of Moses regarding marriage. He could have “bound” the law to “one man and
one woman.” But he didn’t.
It is equally fair to assume that Jesus was perfectly fine with
polygamy as it is to assume that he was not. Both are assumptions that cannot
be confirmed by a plain sense reading of the text.
Why is this important? Because it illustrates that “one man and one woman” cannot be found
in scripture as a binding sexual ethic and norm for all space and time,
as some would like to claim.
Which means that in order to do sexual ethics in our
contemporary context, one must make assumptions and supply other, extra-biblical norms and
values to fill in the blanks. I offer some suggestions about that in another post.
Thus: Since you cannot make the claim that the Bible
explicitly commands marriage to be lifelong, monogamous, and
hetero-gendered, how exactly do you make the claim that this modern definition of
marriage is binding for all Christian people throughout all space and time? (Indeed,
monogamy as a norm is a fairly modern notion, and it is by no means universally
accepted today, even among Christians.)
And, more importantly, since you cannot claim that one
sexual ethic is eternally binding based solely in the scriptures, then how
on earth can you claim that we must have a uniform definition of marriage in
order to also have a shared confession of the saving grace of Jesus Christ?
Talk about reaching too far.
Talk about reaching too far.